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Current Affairs33 min read

CLAT Current Affairs Notes | 8 July 2026 | The Hindu + Indian Express + Times of India

Daily CLAT Current Affairs for 8 July 2026 โ€” covers 12 CLAT-relevant topics including BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting Kochi, Jan Vishwas Amendment Bill 2026, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission 93 Crore ABHA Accounts, Supreme Court on RBI powers & Article 226, 131st Constitution Amendment (Women's Reservation), India's $55 billion renewable energy climate risk, Navi Mumbai Airport drug imports, RBI FCNR(B) changes, Mission for Cotton Productivity, Indiahandmade Platform, Supreme Court Judges Strength Bill, and Aarogya Setu 2.0 launch.

CLATians
CLATians Editorial Desk
08 Jul 2026

1. BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting Kicks Off in Kochi (July 8โ€“9, 2026)

Source: DD News, PIB, IANS | Category: International Relations / Indian Polity

What Happened?

India is hosting the BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting in Kochi, Kerala, on July 8โ€“9, 2026, under its BRICS Chairship 2026. The event brings together ministers and heads of delegation from all BRICS member countries. It follows the BRICS Women Working Group Meeting held on July 6๏ฟฝ/7, during which senior officials discussed priority areas under the BRICS Women Track. The meeting is part of India's overarching BRICS theme: "Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability (BRICS)."

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • CLAT RC passages regularly feature India's role in multilateral forums; BRICS Women Track combines gender policy with global diplomacy.
  • The four pillars of India's BRICS Chairship 2026 (Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation, Sustainability) are high-frequency factual anchors in GK sections.
  • Women in governance and leadership as a BRICS priority directly links to constitutional provisions on gender equality (Articles 14, 15, 16) and gender-based reservation debates.
  • Ministerial-level meetings signal policy intent โ€” understanding their structure and outcomes is tested via inference-based RC questions.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • BRICS: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa (+ newer members from 2024)
  • India's BRICS Chairship 2026: Theme โ€” "Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability"; 18th Summit to be hosted in September 2026
  • BRICS Women Track 2026 Priority Areas: Women in governance & leadership; Digital & financial inclusion; Entrepreneurship & skill development; Climate action, food security & nutrition
  • Articles 14, 15, 16: Equality, non-discrimination, and equal opportunity in public employment
  • Article 51: Directive Principle on promotion of international peace and security

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. India is hosting the BRICS Chairship 2026 under which theme?

A. Inclusive Growth and Sustainable Development

B. Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability

C. Technology, Trade and Transformation

D. Global Partnership for a Better Future

Q2. The BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting in July 2026 was held in which Indian city?

A. New Delhi

B. Mumbai

C. Kochi

D. Bengaluru

Q3. Which of the following is NOT one of the four priority areas of the BRICS Women Track 2026?

A. Women in governance and leadership

B. Women's digital and financial inclusion

C. Women's role in defence and security

D. Women's role in climate action and food security

Q4. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the State have the power to make special provisions for women?

A. Article 14

B. Article 15(3)

C. Article 16(4)

D. Article 21

Q5. The 18th BRICS Summit is scheduled to be held in which year and where?

A. 2025, South Africa

B. 2026, India

C. 2027, Brazil

D. 2026, China

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-B


2. Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 โ€” Decriminalising 79 Central Acts

Source: PRS India, PIB, SCC Online, Indian Express | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law / Economy

What Happened?

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 was introduced in Lok Sabha on March 27, 2026, and has since been passed by Parliament. It proposes amendments to 79 Central Acts administered by 23 Ministries, covering 784 provisions โ€” 717 for decriminalisation and 67 for ease of living improvements. The Bill decriminalises minor and technical offences by replacing imprisonment with civil penalties, advisories, or warnings. For example, violations under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 that earlier attracted imprisonment now carry a civil penalty of โ‚น1 lakh or three times the confiscated goods' value. The Bill succeeds the Jan Vishwas (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which was withdrawn after a Select Committee expanded its scope.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • Decriminalisation of business laws is a key ease-of-doing-business reform โ€” heavily tested in CLAT Legal Reasoning and RC passages on regulatory governance.
  • The shift from criminal to civil liability raises fundamental questions about the purpose of punishment covered in jurisprudence.
  • Understanding the difference between criminal offence (imprisonment/fine) and civil wrong (civil penalty/damages) is a foundational legal concept.
  • The Bill's tiered approach (advisory โ†’ warning โ†’ civil penalty) reflects graduated compliance design, relevant to legal aptitude on regulatory law.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Jan Vishwas Act, 2023: Original Act that decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 laws โ€” predecessor legislation
  • Ease of Doing Business Index: World Bank metric; India's ranking and reforms are standard GK
  • Criminal vs Civil Liability: Key distinction โ€” criminal law is State vs accused; civil law is party vs party
  • Article 19(1)(g): Right to practise any profession or carry on any trade/business
  • Article 21: Personal liberty โ€” decriminalisation reduces unjust imprisonment for technical violations
  • Select Committee vs Standing Committee: Both are Parliamentary committees that scrutinize bills

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes to amend how many Central Acts?

A. 42

B. 65

C. 79

D. 100

Q2. The Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 primarily seeks to:

A. Increase penalties for economic offences

B. Decriminalise minor and technical offences by replacing imprisonment with civil penalties

C. Create a new regulatory body for ease of doing business

D. Amend the Indian Penal Code to add new categories of white-collar crimes

Q3. Which of the following is the correct sequence under the Jan Vishwas Bill 2026's tiered compliance approach for repeat violations?

A. Warning โ†’ Advisory โ†’ Civil Penalty

B. Advisory โ†’ Warning โ†’ Civil Penalty

C. Civil Penalty โ†’ Advisory โ†’ Imprisonment

D. Fine โ†’ Imprisonment โ†’ Advisory

Q4. Principle: A law that imposes imprisonment for a purely technical or minor regulatory violation may be challenged as disproportionate to its objective. Facts: Raj is a small trader fined and imprisoned for a minor labelling error in a packaged food product under a decades-old Act. Under the Jan Vishwas approach, what would likely change?

A. Raj would face higher imprisonment

B. The violation would be decriminalised and replaced with a civil penalty or advisory

C. Raj would be acquitted by the court automatically

D. The Act would be repealed entirely

Q5. Which Constitutional provision most directly protects citizens from harsh criminal penalties for engaging in legitimate trade or business?

A. Article 14

B. Article 19(1)(g) read with Article 21

C. Article 32

D. Article 300A

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-B, Q4-B, Q5-B


3. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission: 93 Crore ABHA Accounts, 104 Crore Health Records Linked

Source: PIB, Blitz India Media, Organiser | Category: Major National Policies / Government Schemes

What Happened?

The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has crossed landmark milestones as of July 6, 2026: over 93 crore Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) accounts have been created, with 104 crore health records linked to these accounts. Women constitute nearly 49.75% of ABHA holders, indicating broad-based adoption. Uttar Pradesh leads with 15.3 crore ABHAs, followed by Rajasthan and Maharashtra (7.1 crore each). Additionally, Aarogya Setu 2.0, launched on June 29, 2026, by Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda, now functions as a single citizen-centric digital health gateway integrating ABDM services.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • Digital health initiatives under ABDM touch constitutional provisions related to right to health (Article 21) and the Directive Principle on public health (Article 47).
  • CLAT RC passages on "Digital India" and "Universal Health Coverage" frequently cite ABDM as a case study.
  • The near-equal gender representation (49.75% women) connects to gender inclusivity in state schemes โ€” relevant for legal reasoning passages.
  • Questions on data privacy in digital health records link to Information Technology Act, 2000 and proposed Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account): Unique 14-digit health ID enabling citizens to store and share health records digitally
  • ABDM: Launched in 2021; part of PM-JAY ecosystem; implementing body โ€” National Health Authority (NHA)
  • Article 21: Right to life includes right to health (Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor case)
  • Article 47: DPSP โ€” State shall regard raising the level of nutrition and standard of living of the people as a primary duty
  • Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: Governs how personal data (including health data) is collected, stored, and processed
  • National Health Authority (NHA): Apex body under Ministry of Health & Family Welfare implementing ABDM

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. How many ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) accounts had been created under ABDM as of July 2026?

A. 50 crore

B. 75 crore

C. 90 crore

D. Over 93 crore

Q2. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is implemented by which body?

A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

B. National Health Authority

C. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

D. NITI Aayog

Q3. Which Directive Principle of State Policy specifically directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and public health?

A. Article 39

B. Article 44

C. Article 47

D. Article 51A

Q4. Aarogya Setu 2.0, launched in June 2026, serves as:

A. A replacement for Aadhaar in health systems

B. A unified digital health gateway integrating ABDM services for citizens

C. A telemedicine platform for rural hospitals only

D. A database for Covid-19 vaccination records

Q5. The right to health as a fundamental right is derived from which Article of the Indian Constitution through judicial interpretation?

A. Article 19

B. Article 21

C. Article 32

D. Article 47

Answers: Q1-D, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-B


4. Supreme Court: RBI's Power to Issue Directions to Banks and Article 226 Against Private Bodies (Ajay Vijh Case)

Source: LiveLaw, CaseCiter, Supreme Court of India | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law / Judicial Decisions

What Happened?

In Ajay Vijh vs. Indian Banks Association & Ors. (2026 INSC 670), decided on July 7, 2026, the Supreme Court addressed two significant legal questions: (1) whether the Reserve Bank of India's power to issue regulatory directions extends to authorising banks to include advocates in a "Caution List" for alleged negligence; and (2) whether a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution is maintainable against a private body (like the Indian Banks Association) if the impugned action has a "public law character." The case raised fundamental questions about disciplinary jurisdiction over advocates and the scope of judicial review against non-State actors.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • Article 226 (High Court writ jurisdiction) and Article 32 (Supreme Court) are among the most frequently tested constitutional provisions in CLAT legal reasoning.
  • The "public law character" test for Article 226 maintainability against private bodies is a landmark doctrinal area โ€” tested in complex RC and legal principles passages.
  • RBI's regulatory powers over banks under the RBI Act and Banking Regulation Act are important for economy-law overlap questions.
  • The rights of advocates and their regulation by the Bar Council under the Advocates Act, 1961 is a connected static concept.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Article 226: High Courts can issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, quo warranto) for enforcement of fundamental rights AND for any other legal purpose
  • Article 32: Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction for enforcement of fundamental rights only (narrower than Art 226)
  • "Public Law Character" Test: Courts can entertain writ petitions against private bodies if their actions are imbued with public duties or have a public law element
  • RBI Act, 1934: Governs RBI's regulatory powers over scheduled banks, including power to issue directions under Section 35A
  • Banking Regulation Act, 1949: Comprehensive regulation of banking companies by RBI
  • Advocates Act, 1961: Governs enrolment, rights, and discipline of advocates; Bar Council of India is the apex regulatory body

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Principle: A writ petition under Article 226 can be filed not only against the State but also against private bodies if the function performed by them has a public law character. Facts: The Indian Banks Association issued a circular placing advocate Ramesh on a "Caution List," effectively preventing him from practicing in any bank matter. Ramesh files a writ petition against the Association in the High Court. The Association argues it is a private body and the writ is not maintainable. Decide.

A. The writ is not maintainable as IBA is a private body

B. The writ is maintainable if the IBA's circular performs a public law function affecting Ramesh's livelihood

C. Ramesh must first approach the RBI before filing any writ petition

D. The writ is maintainable only before the Supreme Court under Article 32

Q2. Under Article 226, which of the following writs can be issued by a High Court?

A. Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Habeas Corpus

B. Mandamus and Habeas Corpus only

C. Certiorari and Prohibition only

D. All writs except Habeas Corpus

Q3. The power of the RBI to issue regulatory directions to banks is primarily derived from:

A. SEBI Act, 1992

B. RBI Act, 1934 (Section 35A) and Banking Regulation Act, 1949

C. Companies Act, 2013

D. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

Q4. Which Supreme Court case is associated with the principle that Article 226 writs can lie against private bodies performing public functions?

A. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India

B. Praga Tools Corporation vs. C.A. Imanual

C. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

D. S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India

Q5. The apex body regulating the enrolment and conduct of advocates in India is:

A. Supreme Court Bar Association

B. Ministry of Law and Justice

C. Bar Council of India

D. Law Commission of India

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-A, Q3-B, Q4-B, Q5-C


5. Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 โ€” Women's Reservation and Delimitation

Source: BusinessToday, Open The Magazine, India.com | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law

What Happened?

The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, providing for one-third reservation of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats for women, is a key item on the agenda for the upcoming Monsoon Session (July 20 โ€“ August 13, 2026). The Bill proposes to operationalise women's reservation through a fresh delimitation exercise based on the most recently published census. This is distinct from the earlier Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), which had also provided for women's reservation but tied its implementation to census and delimitation completion.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • Women's reservation in Parliament is a recurring and critical CLAT topic โ€” it tests knowledge of constitutional amendments, legislative process, and Article 330/332/334.
  • The link between reservation and delimitation is central to understanding electoral law โ€” Delimitation Commission, Delimitation Act, 2002.
  • The distinction between the 106th and 131st Amendment Bills is a nuanced factual question likely to appear in CLAT GK/Current Affairs.
  • Constitutional provisions on reservation for SCs/STs in Parliament and extension of reservation beyond 70 years (Article 334) is a connected concept.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Article 330: Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha
  • Article 332: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in State Legislatures
  • Article 334: Reservation provisions to cease after 70 years from commencement (currently under review)
  • 106th Constitution Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam): Inserted Articles 330A, 332A โ€” reserved 1/3 seats for women; effective after delimitation based on census
  • Delimitation Commission: Set up under Delimitation Act, 2002; readjusts constituencies based on census data; its orders are not questionable in court
  • OBC Sub-Quota within Women's Reservation: Key political demand โ€” not yet incorporated in the 2023 Act

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 that provides for women's reservation is also known as:

A. Mahila Suraksha Adhiniyam

B. Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam

C. Stri Shakti Reservation Act

D. Mahila Aarakshan Kanoon

Q2. Under the 131st Constitution Amendment Bill, 2026, what fraction of Lok Sabha seats would be reserved for women?

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 1/3

D. 2/5

Q3. Which body is responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India?

A. Election Commission of India

B. National Commission for Women

C. Delimitation Commission set up under Delimitation Act, 2002

D. Parliament's Joint Committee

Q4. Which Article of the Constitution provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

A. Article 325

B. Article 326

C. Article 330

D. Article 334

Q5. The women's reservation in Parliament, once implemented after delimitation, will be reviewed after how many years per the 106th Amendment?

A. 10 years

B. 15 years

C. 25 years

D. 15 years (renewable by Parliament)

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-C, Q5-B


6. India's $55 Billion Renewable Energy Pipeline Faces High Climate Risks

Source: Domain-b.com, Carbon Brief, Zurich Kotak General Insurance | Category: Environment, Climate, Energy & Sustainability

What Happened?

A joint report by Zurich Kotak General Insurance and Zurich Resilience Solutions reveals that nearly 90% of India's planned renewable energy pipeline โ€” valued at approximately $55 billion โ€” faces high or critical exposure to climate-related hazards by 2030. Climate threats include extreme rainfall, flooding, landslides, hailstorms, drought, and high wind events. Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand recorded the highest concentrations of critical-risk projects, primarily due to flood and landslide vulnerabilities. Importantly, investing just 2% of project capital expenditure (CapEx) in climate adaptation measures could reduce potential losses by nearly half, from $55 billion to $27 billion.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • India's renewable energy targets (500 GW non-fossil capacity by 2030) are a key policy anchor โ€” tested in both RC and GK sections of CLAT.
  • The "climate risk vs. infrastructure investment" theme is a high-frequency CLAT RC passage topic, often sourced from policy reports.
  • The principle of "climate resilience" and "precautionary principle" in environmental law (derived from Rio Declaration, 1992) has direct legal connections.
  • As of March 2026, India has installed 283.5 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity โ€” this milestone number is CLAT-relevant.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • India's Renewable Energy Target: 500 GW non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030 (NDC under Paris Agreement)
  • National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): Eight missions including National Solar Mission, National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
  • Paris Agreement, 2015: India's NDC commitment to reduce emissions intensity by 45% from 2005 levels by 2030
  • Precautionary Principle: Environmental law principle โ€” when in doubt, adopt measures to prevent harm
  • Environment Protection Act, 1986: Primary Indian law for environmental protection
  • 283.5 GW: India's installed non-fossil fuel capacity as of March 2026

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. According to the Zurich-Kotak report (2026), approximately what proportion of India's renewable energy pipeline faces high or critical climate risk?

A. 50%

B. 70%

C. Nearly 90%

D. All projects

Q2. India's renewable energy target under its National Determined Contribution (NDC) to the Paris Agreement is:

A. 300 GW non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030

B. 500 GW non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030

C. 750 GW solar power by 2035

D. 200 GW wind energy by 2028

Q3. Which Indian states recorded the highest concentration of renewable energy projects classified as facing critical climate risks in 2026?

A. Gujarat and Rajasthan

B. Tamil Nadu and Kerala

C. Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand

D. Odisha and West Bengal

Q4. The precautionary principle in environmental law, often cited in Indian Supreme Court judgments, is most closely associated with:

A. Stockholm Declaration, 1972

B. Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, 1992

C. Kyoto Protocol, 1997

D. Paris Agreement, 2015

Q5. India's installed non-fossil fuel power capacity as of March 2026 stood at approximately:

A. 150 GW

B. 200 GW

C. 250 GW

D. 283.5 GW

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-D


7. Navi Mumbai Airport Notified as Port for Drug Imports Under Drugs Rules, 1945

Source: IANS, ProKerala, Medical Dialogues | Category: Major National Policies / Law & Regulation

What Happened?

On July 8, 2026, the Government of India notified the newly inaugurated Navi Mumbai International Airport as an authorised port for the import of drugs under the Drugs Rules, 1945. With this addition, India now has 42 designated ports for drug imports. The notification was issued by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare following a draft notification published on January 28, 2026, after consultation with the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB). The move is intended to improve pharmaceutical logistics, offer faster customs clearance, and expand import capacity for life-saving medicines.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Drugs Rules, 1945 are foundational health law texts โ€” frequently referenced in CLAT legal aptitude and RC passages on pharmaceutical regulation.
  • The role of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) as a statutory expert body illustrates how technical expertise shapes executive/regulatory decisions.
  • The Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 (covered above) also amends the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 โ€” connecting both today's topics.
  • Import regulation and port designation are examples of delegated legislation โ€” a core constitutional concept (Article 312, legislative powers).

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940: Governs import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India
  • Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB): Statutory body under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act; advises the Central and State Governments on technical matters
  • Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO): National regulatory authority for drugs under DGHS, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
  • Drug Controller General of India (DCGI): Head of CDSCO; responsible for approval of new drugs, clinical trials, import licenses
  • Delegated Legislation: When Parliament delegates rule-making power to the executive; Drugs Rules 1945 are subordinate legislation under the 1940 Act
  • Navi Mumbai International Airport: Newly inaugurated; now designated for pharmaceutical imports expanding to 42 such ports

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Under which law were the Drugs Rules, 1945 framed that govern the import of drugs into India?

A. Pharmacy Act, 1948

B. Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940

C. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954

D. Medical Devices Rules, 2017

Q2. Which statutory body was consulted before notifying Navi Mumbai Airport as a drug import port?

A. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation

B. Drug Controller General of India

C. Drugs Technical Advisory Board

D. National Medical Commission

Q3. With Navi Mumbai Airport's inclusion, India now has how many designated ports for drug imports?

A. 30

B. 36

C. 42

D. 50

Q4. Principle: Delegated legislation is valid only if it is made within the scope of the powers conferred by the parent Act and does not violate fundamental rights. Facts: The Ministry of Health issues a notification under the Drugs Rules, 1945 restricting import of a specific drug class only through designated airports. A pharmaceutical company challenges this as going beyond the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. Decide.

A. The notification is valid as the Ministry can restrict imports at will

B. The notification is valid only if the parent Act confers power to restrict import through specific ports

C. The notification is invalid because drugs should be freely importable

D. The notification cannot be challenged in a High Court

Q5. The National Regulatory Authority for drugs in India under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare is:

A. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority

B. Drug Controller General of India / CDSCO

C. NITI Aayog Health Division

D. National Health Authority

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-B


8. RBI: FCNR(B) Interest Rate Ceiling Removed; Deputy Governor Swaminathan Gets 2-Year Extension

Source: BankingFinance.in, InvestMates, PIB | Category: Economy: Regulation & New Financial Instruments

What Happened?

The Reserve Bank of India has temporarily withdrawn the interest rate ceiling on fresh Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits with tenors of three to five years, effective from June 17, 2026, until September 30, 2026. This regulatory relaxation allows banks greater flexibility to offer competitive rates and attract foreign currency inflows from Non-Resident Indians (NRIs). Separately, the Union Government has extended the term of Swaminathan Janakiraman, Senior-most Deputy Governor of the RBI, for an additional two years effective June 26, 2026. He oversees supervision, inspection, financial inclusion, consumer education, and HR functions at the RBI.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • FCNR(B) deposits are a key mechanism for mobilising foreign capital โ€” relevant to CLAT passages on India's Balance of Payments, forex management, and monetary policy.
  • The RBI's regulatory powers over interest rates and banking deposits are governed by the RBI Act, 1934 and Banking Regulation Act, 1949 โ€” both CLAT static knowledge areas.
  • Understanding NRI deposits (NRE, NRO, FCNR) is foundational for CLAT economy-law interface questions.
  • The appointment and extension of the RBI Deputy Governor involves the Union Government โ€” relevant to appointments to constitutional/statutory bodies.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • FCNR(B) Deposits: Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposits โ€” maintained in foreign currency; no exchange rate risk for NRI depositors; interest fully repatriable
  • NRE vs NRO Accounts: NRE (Non-Resident External) โ€” fully repatriable, tax-free in India; NRO (Non-Resident Ordinary) โ€” restricted repatriability, income taxable in India
  • RBI Act, 1934, Section 35A: Power of RBI to give directions to banking companies
  • FEMA, 1999 (Foreign Exchange Management Act): Governs foreign exchange transactions, capital account convertibility, NRI remittances
  • RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC): Sets repo rate; 6-member committee (3 RBI + 3 external)
  • Repo Rate: Rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks; key monetary policy tool

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. FCNR(B) deposits are maintained in:

A. Indian Rupees only

B. Foreign currency, with no exchange rate risk for the depositor

C. A basket of currencies approved by SEBI

D. Gold-linked accounts

Q2. Which of the following is fully repatriable and tax-free in India?

A. NRO Account

B. NRE Account

C. FCNR(B) Account held in Indian Rupees

D. PPF Account

Q3. The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) 1999 replaced which earlier legislation?

A. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973

B. Companies Act, 1956

C. RBI Act, 1934

D. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

Q4. The RBI's power to issue directions to scheduled banks is primarily derived from:

A. SEBI Act, 1992

B. Section 35A of the RBI Act, 1934

C. FEMA, 1999

D. Companies Act, 2013

Q5. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI has how many members in total?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-B, Q3-A, Q4-B, Q5-C


9. Mission for Cotton Productivity (Kapas Kanti) โ€” ๏ฟฝ๏ฟฝ5,659 Crore Cabinet Approval

Source: PIB, Vice President's Secretariat | Category: Major National Policies / Government Schemes

What Happened?

The Union Cabinet approved the Mission for Cotton Productivity, popularly known as "Kapas Kanti," for the period 2026โ€“27 to 2030โ€“31 with a total financial outlay of ใ‚น1,659 crore. The mission focuses on enhancing cotton productivity through the development of high-yielding variety seeds, improving cotton quality testing infrastructure, and supporting farmers with technology. On July 7, 2026, the Vice President was briefed on the Mission's objectives. India is one of the world's largest cotton producers and exporters; this mission aims to bridge the yield gap with competing nations like China.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • Agricultural schemes are regularly tested in CLAT โ€” both in legal aptitude passages (land/farm law) and general knowledge sections.
  • The constitutional basis for agricultural schemes lies in the Concurrent List (Entry 14 โ€” Agriculture) and Directive Principles under Article 43 (cottage industries, farmer welfare).
  • Textile industry and cotton are connected to India's export policy, "Make in India," and MSME promotion โ€” high-frequency CLAT RC themes.
  • The crop support system (MSP, PM-KISAN) and technology in agriculture (BT cotton, seed regulation) provide rich backdrop for analytical passages.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Mission for Cotton Productivity (Kapas Kanti): 5-year scheme (FY 2026โ€“2031); โ‚น5,659 crore outlay; focus on high-yielding seed varieties and quality testing
  • Seventh Schedule โ€” Concurrent List, Entry 14: Agriculture including agricultural education and research
  • Article 43 (DPSP): State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP): Government-declared price to protect farmers from market volatility; not yet legally guaranteed
  • BT Cotton: Genetically modified variety; India's first commercial GM crop approved in 2002; regulated under Environment Protection Act, 1986 and Rules for Manufacture/Use/Import/Export of Hazardous Micro-organisms, 1989
  • India's Cotton Production: India is the world's second-largest cotton producer and exporter

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. The Mission for Cotton Productivity, approved by the Union Cabinet, is known popularly as:

A. Krishi Unnati Mission

B. Kapas Kanti

C. Kisan Cotton Yojana

D. Pratap Cotton Mission

Q2. The financial outlay approved for the Mission for Cotton Productivity (2026-27 to 2030-31) is:

A. โ‚น2,500 crore

B. โ‚น3,000 crore

C. โ‚น5,659 crore

D. โ‚น10,000 crore

Q3. Agriculture falls under which List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

A. Union List

B. State List

C. Concurrent List

D. Both Union and Concurrent Lists

Q4. Which Directive Principle of State Policy directs the State to promote cottage industries in rural areas?

A. Article 39

B. Article 43

C. Article 45

D. Article 48

Q5. India's first commercially approved genetically modified (GM) crop was:

A. GM Mustard

B. BT Brinjal

C. BT Cotton

D. Golden Rice

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-C


10. Indiahandmade Platform Onboards 64 Lakh Artisans โ€” Exceeds Target

Source: PIB, Government of India | Category: Major National Policies / Economy

What Happened?

As of July 2026, over 64 lakh artisans have been successfully onboarded on the Indiahandmade platform, exceeding the original government target of 60 lakh. The Indiahandmade platform, managed under the Development Commissioner (Handicrafts) under the Ministry of Textiles, serves as an e-marketplace for Indian handicraft artisans, enabling direct market access. This achievement underscores India's push to formalise the handicraft sector and empower artisans โ€” many of whom belong to marginalised communities โ€” through digital commerce.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • CLAT frequently features RC passages and legal reasoning on "digital inclusion," "economic rights of artisans," and "cultural heritage protection."
  • Handicrafts link to the Geographical Indications (GI) Act, 1999 โ€” a key intellectual property law topic for CLAT.
  • The role of Ministry of Textiles and Development Commissioner (Handicrafts) is relevant to GK questions on government departments.
  • Article 51A(f) (fundamental duty to value and preserve heritage) and DPSP under Article 43 (promote cottage industries) are directly connected.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Indiahandmade Platform: E-marketplace for handicrafts under Ministry of Textiles / Development Commissioner (Handicrafts)
  • Geographical Indications (GI) of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999: Protects products with specific geographical origins; India has 500+ GI tags (Darjeeling Tea, Banarasi Silk, Mysuru Silk, Pochampally Ikat, etc.)
  • Article 51A(f): Fundamental Duty โ€” to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  • Article 43 (DPSP): State shall promote cottage industries on individual or co-operative basis
  • PM VIKAS Scheme: PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman โ€” supports traditional artisans and craftspeople
  • Ministry of Textiles: Nodal ministry for textiles, handicrafts, handlooms, sericulture, and jute industries

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. The Indiahandmade platform is managed under which Ministry?

A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

B. Ministry of MSME

C. Ministry of Textiles

D. Ministry of Rural Development

Q2. How many artisans had been onboarded on the Indiahandmade platform as of July 2026, exceeding the government's original target?

A. 40 lakh

B. 55 lakh

C. 60 lakh

D. Over 64 lakh

Q3. Which law in India provides legal protection to products with specific geographical origins such as Darjeeling Tea and Banarasi Silk?

A. Trade Marks Act, 1999

B. Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999

C. Patents Act, 1970

D. Copyright Act, 1957

Q4. Which Fundamental Duty under Article 51A directs citizens to value and preserve India's rich cultural heritage?

A. Article 51A(e)

B. Article 51A(f)

C. Article 51A(g)

D. Article 51A(h)

Q5. The PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman (PM VIKAS) scheme targets which category of beneficiaries?

A. Women farmers in rural areas

B. Traditional artisans and craftspeople from OBC communities

C. Tribal entrepreneurs in north-eastern states

D. SC/ST students in professional colleges

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-D, Q3-B, Q4-B, Q5-B


11. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 โ€” Expanding Bench Strength

Source: Live Law, PIB, India Today | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law / Judiciary

What Happened?

The Union Cabinet approved the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026, proposing to increase the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges. Currently, the Supreme Court has a sanctioned strength of 34 judges (including the Chief Justice of India) as set by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, as amended. The proposed increase aims to address the Supreme Court's mounting pendency of cases and improve judicial efficiency. A large number of constitutional, civil, and criminal cases remain pending before the apex court.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • The composition and functioning of the Supreme Court (Articles 124โ€“147) is among the most heavily tested topics in CLAT legal aptitude.
  • The power to determine the number of Supreme Court judges rests with Parliament (not the Constitution directly), making amendments frequent โ€” understanding this legislative process is important.
  • Judicial pendency is a recurring CLAT RC theme โ€” passages on backlog, vacancies, NJAC, and collegium system appear in UG and PG level exams.
  • The NJAC judgment (2015) and the collegium system's constitutional status are must-know connected concepts.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Article 124(1): Constitution says "there shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges"
  • Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956: Parliament sets the numerical strength; currently 34 (CJI + 33)
  • Article 124(2): Judges appointed by President in consultation with such Judges of SC and HCs as deemed necessary (Collegium System in practice)
  • NJAC (National Judicial Appointments Commission) Act, 2014: Struck down by SC in 2015 (Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association vs. Union of India)
  • Collegium System: 5-member collegium (CJI + 4 senior judges) recommends appointments/transfers; no constitutional basis โ€” evolved through Second, Third Judges Cases
  • Judicial Pendency: Over 80,000 cases pending in Supreme Court; over 6 crore cases in all courts across India

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. The current sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges (including Chief Justice) as of 2026 is:

A. 26

B. 31

C. 34

D. 40

Q2. The power to increase the number of Supreme Court judges beyond what is specified in the Constitution vests with:

A. The President of India

B. The Chief Justice of India

C. Parliament by law

D. The Law Commission of India

Q3. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 because:

A. It was not ratified by State Legislatures

B. It was passed without presidential assent

C. It violated the independence of the judiciary โ€” a basic feature of the Constitution

D. It had no provision for the Chief Justice's role

Q4. The Collegium System for appointment of Supreme Court judges evolved through judicial decisions in which cases?

A. Golaknath Case and Kesavananda Bharati Case

B. First, Second, and Third Judges Cases (1981, 1993, 1998)

C. Maneka Gandhi Case and Minerva Mills Case

D. Vishakha Case and Indra Sawhney Case

Q5. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the appointment of Supreme Court judges?

A. Article 122

B. Article 124

C. Article 126

D. Article 131

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-B


12. Aarogya Setu 2.0 Launched โ€” India's Unified Digital Health Gateway

Source: PIB, Organiser, NHA | Category: Major National Policies / Technology & Health

What Happened?

Aarogya Setu 2.0 was launched on June 29, 2026, by Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The upgraded platform functions as a single citizen-centric digital health gateway, integrating the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) services including ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account), health record linkage, telemedicine, and health information exchange. The original Aarogya Setu app was launched in April 2020 during the COVID-19 pandemic for contact tracing. The 2.0 version transitions the app from a pandemic tool to a comprehensive personal health management platform accessible to all citizens.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

  • Digital health governance and data privacy are high-frequency CLAT RC passage themes โ€” especially around consent-based data sharing under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  • The evolution of Aarogya Setu from a contact-tracing app to a health platform raises important questions about surveillance, privacy (Article 21, Puttaswamy judgment), and purpose limitation.
  • Understanding the intersection of technology, health policy, and constitutional rights is essential for CLAT's analytical passages.
  • The role of National Health Authority (NHA) and Ministry of Health in digital health infrastructure is CLAT GK content.

Key Static Concepts to Link

  • Aarogya Setu 2.0: Unified digital health gateway integrating ABDM, ABHA, telemedicine, and health records; launched June 29, 2026
  • Aarogya Setu (original): Launched April 2, 2020; contact tracing app during COVID-19; operated by National Informatics Centre
  • K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017): 9-judge constitutional bench unanimously held that privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21
  • Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: Governs processing of digital personal data; key principles โ€” purpose limitation, data minimisation, consent
  • Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty โ€” interpreted to include right to privacy, right to health
  • National Health Authority (NHA): Apex body for ABDM; under Ministry of Health & Family Welfare

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Aarogya Setu 2.0 was launched by which Union Minister in June 2026?

A. Mansukh Mandaviya

B. J.P. Nadda

C. Amit Shah

D. Ashwini Vaishnaw

Q2. The landmark Supreme Court judgment that recognised privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 is:

A. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978)

B. K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017)

C. Gobind vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (1975)

D. R. Rajagopal vs. State of Tamil Nadu (1994)

Q3. The original Aarogya Setu app was launched in April 2020 primarily for:

A. Online vaccine booking

B. Contact tracing during the COVID-19 pandemic

C. Digital health records management

D. Telemedicine consultations

Q4. Principle: Collecting citizens' personal health data without consent or beyond the stated purpose violates the right to privacy under Article 21. Facts: A health app collects users' location data, even after COVID restrictions are lifted, and shares it with insurance companies without user consent. Decide.

A. The collection is valid as the app is government-authorised

B. The collection violates the right to privacy if done without consent and beyond the original purpose

C. Location data is not personal data and hence not protected

D. Insurance companies can always access health data through government channels

Q5. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, the principle that data should only be collected for specified and legitimate purposes is called:

A. Data minimisation

B. Purpose limitation

C. Consent principle

D. Storage limitation

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-B, Q3-B, Q4-B, Q5-B


๐Ÿ“Š Quick Revision Snapshot

# Topic Key Fact CLAT Category
1 BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting, Kochi India hosts July 8-9, 2026; 4 priority areas under BRICS Women Track International Relations
2 Jan Vishwas Amendment Bill, 2026 Decriminalises 79 Central Acts; 784 provisions; civil penalty replaces imprisonment Indian Polity & Economy
3 Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission 93 crore ABHA accounts; 104 crore health records linked; Aarogya Setu 2.0 National Policy / Health
4 SC: Ajay Vijh vs. IBA (2026 INSC 670) Article 226 maintainability against private bodies; RBI's power to issue directions Constitutional Law
5 131st Constitution Amendment Bill One-third women's reservation; tied to delimitation based on new census Indian Polity
6 India's Renewable Energy Pipeline $55 billion pipeline; 90% faces climate risk; 283.5 GW installed capacity Environment & Energy
7 Navi Mumbai Airport โ€” Drug Imports Notified under Drugs Rules, 1945; India now has 42 designated drug import ports Law & Regulation
8 RBI: FCNR(B) ceiling removed Interest rate ceiling temporarily lifted (June 17 โ€“ Sept 30, 2026); DG Swaminathan's term extended Economy / Banking
9 Mission for Cotton Productivity "Kapas Kanti"; โ‚น5,659 crore; 2026-27 to 2030-31; high-yield seeds focus National Policy / Agriculture
10 Indiahandmade Platform 64 lakh artisans onboarded; exceeds 60 lakh target; under Ministry of Textiles Economy / Culture
11 SC (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill Increase in sanctioned strength of SC judges; Parliament's power under Article 124(1) Constitutional Law
12 Aarogya Setu 2.0 Launched June 29, 2026; unified digital health gateway integrating ABDM, ABHA National Policy / Technology

๐Ÿ“Œ Prepared by CLATians Editorial Desk | For CLAT 2027 & CLAT 2028 Preparation | Based on The Hindu, Indian Express, Times of India, PIB, ANI

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