CLAT Current Affairs Notes | 12 October 2026 | The Hindu + Indian Express + Times of India

1. Kerala Assembly Moves to Remove Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar

Source: The Hindu, Indian Express | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law

What Happened?

The Kerala State Legislative Assembly passed a resolution calling for the removal of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) Gyanesh Kumar, amid protests questioning the independence of the Election Commission of India (ECI). The controversy has reignited debate on the structural safeguards protecting the autonomy of India's premier electoral body. The CEC has been at the centre of opposition criticism over alleged partisan conduct in election management.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• The ECI derives its authority from Article 324 of the Constitution; the CEC can be removed only through the same process applicable to a Supreme Court judge — impeachment by Parliament under Article 124(4), read with Article 324(5)
• Unlike the CEC, other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the CEC, a safeguard upheld in T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995)
• State legislature resolutions demanding removal of a constitutional officeholder raise federal–constitutional tension, likely to feature in CLAT passages on constitutional democracy and institutional independence

Key Static Concepts to Link

• Article 324 – ECI's superintendence, direction, and control of elections
• Article 324(5) – Conditions of service of Election Commissioners
• T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995 SC) – upheld three-member ECI structure
• Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 – new appointment mechanism
• Difference between CEC and EC removal: only CEC has judicial-equivalent removal protection

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Under which constitutional provision can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed? A. Article 311
B. Article 124(4) read with Article 324(5)
C. Article 356
D. Article 75(3)

Q2. The principle that other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the CEC was judicially upheld in: A. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
B. T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995)
C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Q3. Article 324 of the Constitution vests superintendence of elections in the: A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Parliament of India
C. Election Commission of India
D. Supreme Court of India

Q4. A State Legislature resolution demanding removal of the CEC is: A. Binding on Parliament under Article 249
B. Binding on the President under Article 74
C. Non-binding — only Parliament can initiate removal
D. Automatically referred to the Supreme Court

Q5. The Election Commission of India became a three-member body in: A. 1950
B. 1993
C. 2000
D. 2023

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-C, Q5-B

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2. UAPA Reform Debate — G.N. Saibaba's Death Renews Calls for Change

Source: The Hindu, Indian Express | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law

What Happened?

The death of Professor G.N. Saibaba — a differently-abled activist acquitted by the Bombay High Court after years in prison under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967 — has triggered fresh demands for reforming India's anti-terror legislation. Critics point to the Act's stringent bail provisions, prolonged pre-trial detention, and the executive's power to designate individuals as terrorists (introduced in the 2019 amendment) as structural concerns that violate fundamental rights.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• Section 43D(5) of UAPA makes bail nearly impossible if the court is of the prima facie view that the accusation is true — the Supreme Court in NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019) strictly limited judicial review at the bail stage
• In Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021), the SC held that prolonged incarceration without trial can violate Article 21, even under UAPA
• CLAT passages frequently test the tension between national security law and fundamental rights (Articles 19, 21, 22)

Key Static Concepts to Link

• UAPA, 1967 — amended in 2004, 2008, 2012, 2019
• Section 43D(5) — bail restriction clause
• Article 21 — Right to Life and Personal Liberty
• Article 22 — Protection against arbitrary arrest and detention
• NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019) — bail stage evidence review
• Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021) — prolonged detention and Article 21
• Arup Bhuyan v. State of Assam (2023) — continued unlawful association membership punishable

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Which UAPA provision makes bail extremely difficult for accused persons? A. Section 10
B. Section 38
C. Section 43D(5)
D. Section 66A

Q2. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that prolonged incarceration without a timely trial could violate Article 21, even under UAPA? A. NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019)
B. Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021)
C. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Q3. The 2019 amendment to UAPA granted power to designate individuals as terrorists to: A. The Supreme Court
B. The National Investigation Agency
C. The Executive (Central Government)
D. State Governments

Q4. Which fundamental right is most directly implicated by prolonged pre-trial detention under UAPA? A. Article 14
B. Article 19(1)(g)
C. Article 21
D. Article 25

Q5. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act was originally enacted in: A. 1950
B. 1967
C. 2004
D. 2019

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-C, Q5-B

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3. Delimitation Bill 2026 — Lok Sabha Seats to Rise from 543 to 850

Source: PRS India, Indian Express | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law

What Happened?

The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 — the Delimitation Bill — proposes to increase Lok Sabha seats from 543 to 850, with 815 seats for states and 35 for Union Territories. The bill also allows the Delimitation Commission to be constituted before the 2027 Census is completed, thereby accelerating the implementation of the Women's Reservation Act (33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha and state assemblies). Opposition parties, including some from southern states, have raised concerns about seat reallocation affecting their relative representation.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• Delimitation of constituencies is governed by Article 82 of the Constitution (after each Census) and Article 170 (for state assemblies); the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002 is the enabling legislation
• The Women's Reservation Act (Constitution 106th Amendment, 2023) made seats for women effective only after the first delimitation following the next Census — this bill potentially accelerates that
• Southern states' concern over seat-shares raises the issue of representation vs. population, a classic CLAT passage theme on federalism

Key Static Concepts to Link

• Article 81 — Composition of Lok Sabha (currently 543 + 2 nominated Anglo-Indian seats abolished in 2019)
• Article 82 — Readjustment after each Census
• Article 170 — Composition of State Legislative Assemblies
• Delimitation Commission Act, 2002
• Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 — Women's Reservation (33%)
• 84th Constitutional Amendment — seat-freeze until 2026 Census (now extended)

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Which article of the Constitution provides for the readjustment of Lok Sabha seats after each Census? A. Article 81
B. Article 82
C. Article 170
D. Article 248

Q2. The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposes to increase Lok Sabha seats to: A. 543
B. 750
C. 850
D. 900

Q3. The Women's Reservation Act (33% seats) passed in 2023 is linked to delimitation because: A. It requires a constitutional amendment for each election
B. It becomes effective only after the first delimitation post-Census
C. It applies only to Rajya Sabha
D. It needs approval of State Legislatures

Q4. The enabling legislation for the Delimitation Commission is the: A. Representation of the People Act, 1951
B. Delimitation Commission Act, 2002
C. Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019
D. ECI (Powers and Functions) Act, 1950

Q5. Anglo-Indian nominated seats in the Lok Sabha were abolished by which constitutional amendment? A. 100th Amendment
B. 101st Amendment
C. 104th Amendment
D. 106th Amendment

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-B, Q4-B, Q5-C

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4. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill 2026 — Judges Increased to 38

Source: PRS India | Category: Indian Polity & Constitutional Law

What Happened?

Parliament passed the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026, increasing the number of Supreme Court judges (excluding the Chief Justice) from 33 to 37, bringing the total bench strength to 38 (including the CJI). The Bill replaced an ordinance issued on May 16, 2026, was passed by the Lok Sabha on August 3, 2026, and by the Rajya Sabha on August 5, 2026. The increase is aimed at addressing the Supreme Court's significant pendency of cases.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• Article 124(1) of the Constitution originally provided for a Supreme Court "consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges"; the number has been progressively increased by Parliament
• This amendment signals the Legislature's ongoing response to judicial pendency — a recurring theme in CLAT passages on access to justice
• The route of Ordinance → Bill is constitutionally significant: Article 123 allows the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session, but they must be replaced within six weeks of reassembly

Key Static Concepts to Link

• Article 124(1) — Constitution of the Supreme Court
• Article 123 — Ordinance-making power of the President
• Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 — parent legislation
• Judicial pendency and the NJDG (National Judicial Data Grid)
• Progressive increases: 7 → 10 → 13 → 17 → 25 → 30 → 33 → now 37 (excluding CJI)

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Which article of the Constitution originally provides for the composition of the Supreme Court? A. Article 121
B. Article 124
C. Article 130
D. Article 145

Q2. After the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2026, the total bench strength of the Supreme Court (including CJI) is: A. 34
B. 37
C. 38
D. 40

Q3. The parent legislation governing the number of Supreme Court judges is: A. Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
B. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956
C. High Courts Act, 1861
D. Supreme Court Rules, 2013

Q4. The President can promulgate an Ordinance under: A. Article 111
B. Article 118
C. Article 123
D. Article 143

Q5. The 2026 Bill replaced an ordinance because ordinances must be approved by Parliament within: A. 3 weeks of reassembly
B. 6 weeks of reassembly
C. 3 months of reassembly
D. 6 months of reassembly

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-B, Q4-C, Q5-B

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5. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) Completes First Year

Source: PIB, Insights on India | Category: National Policies & Government Schemes

What Happened?

The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) marked its first anniversary. Launched as a six-year, district-focused agriculture mission, it targets 100 "aspirational agricultural districts" identified for low productivity and credit access gaps. The scheme converges 36 existing agricultural schemes across 11 ministries and departments and uses a 121-indicator monitoring framework to track outcomes. Its objective is to raise agricultural productivity, credit availability, and farmers' income in lagging districts.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• India's agricultural policy is rooted in the Directive Principles (Article 48 — organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry; Article 39 — adequate livelihood), which CLAT frequently tests in passage-based questions
• The convergence approach mirrors the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP), showing continuity in India's district-level development strategy
• CLAT 2026/2027 passages on welfare policy and socio-economic rights often feature government schemes as factual anchors for inference questions

Key Static Concepts to Link

• Article 48 — Directive Principle on agriculture and animal husbandry
• Article 39(b) & (c) — distribution of material resources; prevention of concentration of wealth
• PM-KISAN, PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana), PM-AASHA — related schemes
• Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) — predecessor convergence model
• Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana targets how many aspirational agricultural districts? A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 115

Q2. Which Directive Principle article specifically relates to the organisation of agriculture? A. Article 44
B. Article 45
C. Article 48
D. Article 51A

Q3. PMDDKY converges schemes across how many ministries? A. 5
B. 8
C. 11
D. 15

Q4. The monitoring framework of PMDDKY uses how many indicators? A. 36
B. 100
C. 121
D. 200

Q5. Which of the following is the crop insurance scheme under which farmers receive premium subsidies? A. PM-KISAN
B. PMFBY
C. PMDDKY
D. PMGSY

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-C, Q5-B

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6. Katchatheevu Controversy — Sri Lankan President Says India Acknowledged Its Territory

Source: The Hindu | Category: International Relations

What Happened?

Sri Lankan President Anura Kumara Dissanayake stated that India has acknowledged that the island of Katchatheevu belongs to Sri Lanka. The remark stirred political controversy in India, particularly in Tamil Nadu, where Katchatheevu remains a sensitive issue linked to the rights of Indian (Tamil) fishermen who are frequently arrested by Sri Lanka for fishing near the island. The island was ceded to Sri Lanka by India in 1974 through an agreement under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• Katchatheevu was ceded through the 1974 Indo-Sri Lanka Maritime Boundary Agreement — there was no constitutional amendment, raising the question of whether Parliament's approval was needed (given Article 368 for territorial changes)
• The controversy touches upon Article 253 (implementation of international agreements) and India's federal structure — Tamil Nadu's interests vs. the Union's foreign policy discretion
• CLAT passages on India's territorial disputes and the relationship between domestic law and international agreements frequently feature this topic

Key Static Concepts to Link

• 1974 Indo-Sri Lanka Maritime Agreement (signed under PM Indira Gandhi)
• Article 253 — Parliament's power to legislate to give effect to international agreements
• Article 1 read with First Schedule — India's territory
• Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) concept under UNCLOS
• Palk Strait geography — separates India (Tamil Nadu) from Sri Lanka

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Katchatheevu island was ceded to Sri Lanka in which year? A. 1967
B. 1971
C. 1974
D. 1983

Q2. Under which article does Parliament have the power to make laws to implement India's international agreements? A. Article 249
B. Article 252
C. Article 253
D. Article 256

Q3. Katchatheevu lies in the: A. Gulf of Mannar
B. Bay of Bengal
C. Arabian Sea
D. Palk Strait

Q4. The Indo-Sri Lanka Maritime Boundary Agreement of 1974 was signed under which Prime Minister? A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Morarji Desai

Q5. Under UNCLOS, the Exclusive Economic Zone extends up to how many nautical miles from the baseline? A. 12
B. 24
C. 200
D. 350

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-C, Q3-D, Q4-C, Q5-C

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7. Pakistan Declares Emergency in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Suspends Provincial Government

Source: The Hindu, Indian Express | Category: International Conflicts & Security

What Happened?

Pakistan's President declared a state of emergency in the province of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa (KP) and suspended its provincial government, citing ongoing security threats and law-and-order failure. The move is constitutionally significant under Pakistan's Constitution (Article 232 equivalent, or Governor's Rule), and follows months of conflict between the federal government and the KP government led by Imran Khan's Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf (PTI). The KP province borders Afghanistan and has historically been a flashpoint for militancy.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• Comparative constitutional law: Pakistan's emergency provisions parallel India's Articles 355–356 (President's Rule); CLAT frequently tests comparative constitutional understanding
• The suspension of an elected provincial government raises questions of federalism, democratic accountability, and sub-national autonomy — themes that mirror India's own debates under Article 356 (S.R. Bommai judgment)
• Regional security in KP is directly linked to India's strategic interests (border stability, cross-border terrorism) tested in CLAT's international relations segment

Key Static Concepts to Link

• Article 356 (India) — President's Rule / imposition of Governor's Rule
• S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) — SC put limits on arbitrary use of Article 356
• Pakistan's 18th Constitutional Amendment (2010) — devolved powers to provinces
• Khyber Pakhtunkhwa — borders Afghanistan; capital Peshawar
• PTI (Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf) — party of former PM Imran Khan

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. India's equivalent of "President's Rule" in a state is provided under: A. Article 352
B. Article 355
C. Article 356
D. Article 360

Q2. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India limit the arbitrary use of Article 356? A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
B. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
C. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)

Q3. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan shares a border with: A. India
B. Iran
C. Afghanistan
D. China

Q4. Under Article 356 (India), President's Rule in a state must be approved by Parliament within: A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year

Q5. Which constitutional amendment in Pakistan devolved significant powers to provinces in 2010? A. 8th Amendment
B. 14th Amendment
C. 18th Amendment
D. 21st Amendment

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-A, Q5-C

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8. Exercise INDRA-2026 — India-Russia Naval Exercise at Vladivostok

Source: PIB, AIR | Category: International Relations & Global Summits

What Happened?

INS Sahyadri arrived at Vladivostok, Russia, for the bilateral naval exercise INDRA-2026, scheduled from 13–18 October 2026 and taking place in the Sea of Japan. INDRA is India's longest-running bilateral naval exercise with Russia, and the 2026 edition builds on India's defence partnership with Russia at a time when Moscow is engaged in the war in Ukraine. The exercise covers anti-submarine warfare, air defence, and maritime security operations.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• India's "strategic autonomy" — exercising with Russia while maintaining ties with the West — is a recurring CLAT passage theme on India's foreign policy doctrine
• INS Sahyadri is a Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigate indigenously built under the "Make in India" defence initiative; this tests both science-tech and international relations
• Exercise INDRA tests bilateral defence interoperability and the India-Russia Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership

Key Static Concepts to Link

• India-Russia Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership (2010)
• INS Sahyadri — P17 Shivalik-class stealth frigate
• Vladivostok — Russia's Far East port; "Act Far East Policy" (India's)
• INDRA Exercise — bilateral India-Russia; naval; annually/biannually
• India's "strategic autonomy" in foreign policy

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Exercise INDRA is a bilateral naval exercise between India and: A. USA
B. France
C. Russia
D. Japan

Q2. INS Sahyadri belongs to which class of warships? A. Kolkata-class
B. Vikrant-class
C. Shivalik-class
D. Talwar-class

Q3. Vladivostok is located in which part of Russia? A. Western Russia (near Finland)
B. Central Russia (near Kazakhstan)
C. Far East Russia (near Sea of Japan)
D. Southern Russia (near Black Sea)

Q4. India-Russia "Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership" was formalised in: A. 2000
B. 2005
C. 2010
D. 2015

Q5. India's "Act Far East Policy" refers to deepening ties with which region of Russia? A. Siberia
B. Moscow
C. Ural Region
D. Russian Far East (Vladivostok region)

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-C, Q5-D

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9. Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 — India Hosts Second Multinational Air Exercise at Jodhpur

Source: PIB, Drishti IAS, Adda247 | Category: International Relations & Security

What Happened?

India's Indian Air Force (IAF) is hosting the second edition of Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 at Jodhpur, Rajasthan, under the theme "Power in Partnership." About 8 countries are contributing air assets — including Australia, France (with F-35 partner USA), Germany, Greece, Sri Lanka, UAE, and the USA — while nearly 32 more nations are participating as observers, making the total close to 40 countries. The exercise follows the inaugural 2024 edition and aims to enhance multinational air combat interoperability.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• India's growing role as a regional defence host reflects the shift from "buyer of defence equipment" to "security provider" under the Quad framework and bilateral partnerships
• Jodhpur's strategic location in Rajasthan (Thar Desert frontier) makes it a key IAF base for western sector operations — geographical context tested in CLAT
• The presence of F-35s and Rafales alongside IAF Sukhois and Tejas fighters underlines the scope of India's "Make in India" defence integration with global platforms

Key Static Concepts to Link

• Exercise Tarang Shakti — IAF multinational air exercise (2024 inaugural; 2026 second edition)
• Jodhpur Air Force Station — Western Air Command
• QUAD (India, USA, Japan, Australia) — strategic grouping
• Mission Pégase 2026 — French deployment of Rafale F4, A400M, A330 MRTT
• LCA Tejas — India's indigenous fighter; ADA/HAL produced

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 was held at which location? A. Gwalior
B. Jodhpur
C. Leh
D. Pune

Q2. The theme of Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 is: A. "Skies United"
B. "Strength Through Partnership"
C. "Power in Partnership"
D. "Unified Sky"

Q3. Which country deployed F-35 fighters in Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026? A. France
B. Germany
C. USA
D. Australia

Q4. "Mission Pégase 26" refers to France's deployment in Tarang Shakti and involved which aircraft? A. F-16 and C-130
B. Rafale F4, A400M, and A330 MRTT
C. Mirage 2000 and A320
D. Eurofighter and C-17

Q5. Jodhpur Air Force Station falls under which IAF Command? A. Eastern Air Command
B. Southern Air Command
C. Western Air Command
D. Central Air Command

Answers: Q1-B, Q2-C, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-C

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10. CERVAVAC Gets WHO Prequalification — India's HPV Vaccine Goes Global

Source: BioSpectrum India, Indian Pharma Post | Category: Economy, Science & Technology

What Happened?

The World Health Organization (WHO) granted prequalification status to CERVAVAC®, the quadrivalent HPV vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India (SII), on October 5, 2026. It became SII's 32nd WHO-prequalified product. CERVAVAC targets HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18 — strains responsible for cervical, vulvar, vaginal, and anal cancers as well as genital warts. It was developed with support from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), BIRAC, IARC (WHO), and the Gates Foundation, and is licensed for boys and girls aged 9–26.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• WHO prequalification unlocks UN agency procurement, enabling GAVI and UNICEF to procure CERVAVAC for low- and middle-income countries — a major public health milestone
• The partnership between SII, DBT, BIRAC, and the Gates Foundation illustrates the public-private collaboration model in India's biotech ecosystem, a theme in CLAT passages on policy and science
• Cervical cancer is the second most common cancer among Indian women; CERVAVAC addresses Article 21's broad interpretation of right to health

Key Static Concepts to Link

• WHO Prequalification — allows UN agencies (UNICEF, PAHO, GAVI) to procure vaccines
• Serum Institute of India (SII) — world's largest vaccine manufacturer by volume
• BIRAC — Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (DBT subsidiary)
• Article 21 — Right to Health (implied fundamental right, per Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v. State of WB, 1996)
• Cervical Cancer Elimination Initiative — WHO global target of 90% girls vaccinated by age 15

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. CERVAVAC is a vaccine targeting which virus? A. Hepatitis B
B. Rotavirus
C. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Japanese Encephalitis

Q2. WHO prequalification of a vaccine allows: A. The vaccine to be sold without prescription globally
B. UN agencies to procure and distribute the vaccine internationally
C. The manufacturer to set prices in all countries
D. Automatic approval in all WHO member states

Q3. CERVAVAC was developed by: A. Bharat Biotech
B. Biological E
C. Serum Institute of India
D. Cipla

Q4. The right to health is protected under the Indian Constitution through: A. A specific article naming it
B. Article 21 as interpreted by the Supreme Court
C. Article 25
D. Article 47 alone

Q5. BIRAC (Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council) functions under: A. Ministry of Science and Technology
B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
C. Department of Biotechnology
D. NITI Aayog

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-C

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11. TRISHNA Satellite in Advanced Stage — India-France Joint Climate Mission

Source: The Hindu, ISRO, CNES | Category: Environment, Climate, Energy

What Happened?

ISRO confirmed that the TRISHNA (Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment) satellite is in an advanced stage of realisation. TRISHNA is a joint mission between ISRO and France's CNES (National Centre for Space Studies), with Airbus Defence & Space supporting the platform. It will provide high-resolution thermal infrared images for monitoring urban heat islands, agricultural water use, ecosystem health, and climate change impacts. TRISHNA is planned to be placed in a sun-synchronous orbit.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• TRISHNA exemplifies India's space diplomacy and alignment with global climate commitments under the Paris Agreement — both tested in CLAT's legal reasoning and international law sections
• India's space programme is governed by the Indian Space Policy 2023 and the Space Activities Bill (pending), relevant to CLAT's polity and current affairs questions
• The satellite will contribute data for India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) — a direct link to constitutional obligations under Article 48A and Article 51A(g)

Key Static Concepts to Link

• TRISHNA — ISRO-CNES joint thermal infrared satellite
• CNES — Centre National d'Études Spatiales (France's space agency)
• Sun-synchronous orbit — polar orbit; constant sun angle
• Paris Agreement (2015) — India's NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions)
• Article 48A — State's duty to protect environment
• Article 51A(g) — Citizens' duty to protect natural environment
• NAPCC — National Action Plan on Climate Change (8 missions)

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. TRISHNA satellite is a joint mission between ISRO and which foreign space agency? A. NASA (USA)
B. ESA (Europe)
C. CNES (France)
D. JAXA (Japan)

Q2. TRISHNA primarily uses which technology to monitor environmental parameters? A. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
B. Thermal Infrared Imaging
C. Optical multispectral imaging
D. LIDAR

Q3. India's constitutional duty to protect the environment is enshrined in: A. Article 21 only
B. Article 48A and Article 51A(g)
C. Article 39 only
D. Article 32

Q4. India's climate commitments under the Paris Agreement are communicated through: A. Green Bonds
B. Carbon Tax
C. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
D. Emissions Trading System

Q5. The Indian Space Policy 2023 was approved under which body? A. Parliament
B. ISRO
C. Cabinet Committee on Security
D. Union Cabinet

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-B, Q4-C, Q5-D

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12. Himalayan Flash Floods in Nepal & Sarus Crane Survey — Environment Updates

Source: Insights on India, BNHS | Category: Environment, Climate, Energy

What Happened?

A devastating flash flood struck Nepal's Budhi Gandaki basin in Gorkha district, triggered by a glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) combined with a cloudburst event. The flood caused significant displacement and damage. Separately, the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) announced an All-India Sarus Crane Survey to estimate population size and identify key threats such as power-line collisions. India's Sarus Crane — the world's tallest flying bird and the state bird of Uttar Pradesh — faces habitat loss and accidental electrocution as major threats.

Why is this IMPORTANT for CLAT?

• Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) in the Himalayan region are linked to climate change and are an increasing disaster risk — tested in CLAT passages on environment and disaster management law
• The NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority) guidelines on flash floods include hazard mapping, early warning systems, and transboundary data-sharing — relevant to India-Nepal cooperation under Article 253
• The Sarus Crane is protected under Schedule IV of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972; conservation law questions appear regularly in CLAT

Key Static Concepts to Link

• GLOF — Glacial Lake Outburst Flood; climate-change driven Himalayan hazard
• NDMA — National Disaster Management Authority (under DM Act, 2005)
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 — Schedules I–VI; Sarus Crane under Schedule IV
• Sarus Crane (Grus antigone) — state bird of Uttar Pradesh; tallest flying bird globally
• Article 48A — State's duty to protect wildlife and forests
• Budhi Gandaki River — Nepal; major trans-Himalayan river

Possible CLAT Questions

Q1. The Sarus Crane is the state bird of which Indian state? A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Bihar

Q2. Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) are primarily associated with: A. Western Ghats
B. Himalayan region
C. Deccan Plateau
D. Coastal areas

Q3. The Sarus Crane is protected under which Schedule of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972? A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule VI

Q4. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) was constituted under: A. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
B. Disaster Management Act, 2005
C. Civil Defence Act, 1968
D. National Security Act, 1980

Q5. India's constitutional provision making it a State duty to protect wildlife is: A. Article 44
B. Article 47
C. Article 48A
D. Article 51

Answers: Q1-C, Q2-B, Q3-C, Q4-B, Q5-C

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📊 Quick Revision Snapshot

#	Topic	Key Fact	CLAT Category
1	Kerala Assembly vs CEC	CEC removed via Article 124(4)/324(5); T.N. Seshan (1995) case	Indian Polity
2	UAPA Reform Debate	Section 43D(5) bail restriction; G.N. Saibaba death triggers calls	Constitutional Law
3	Delimitation Bill 2026	Lok Sabha seats: 543 → 850; enabled by Article 82	Polity & Constitution
4	SC Judges Amendment 2026	SC judges: 33 → 37 (excl. CJI); total = 38	Constitutional Law
5	PMDDKY Anniversary	100 aspirational agri-districts; 36 schemes; Article 48 DPSPs	Government Schemes
6	Katchatheevu Controversy	Ceded in 1974 under Indira Gandhi; Article 253; Palk Strait	International Relations
7	Pakistan Emergency in KP	Compare India's Art. 356; S.R. Bommai; KP borders Afghanistan	International Security
8	Exercise INDRA-2026	India-Russia naval; INS Sahyadri; Vladivostok; 13–18 Oct 2026	International Relations
9	Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026	IAF multinational; Jodhpur; 40 nations; F-35, Rafale	International Security
10	CERVAVAC WHO Prequalification	Serum Institute HPV vaccine; UN procurement; Art. 21 right to health	Economy & Science
11	TRISHNA Satellite	ISRO-CNES (France) joint; thermal infrared; Art. 48A	Environment & Science
12	Himalayan Floods & Sarus Crane	GLOF in Nepal; BNHS survey; WPA 1972 Schedule IV; NDMA	Environment

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📌 Prepared by CLATians Editorial Desk | For CLAT 2027 & CLAT 2028 Preparation | Based on The Hindu, Indian Express, Times of India, PIB, ANI